APPSC Group 2 Previous Question Papers (with Answers) Download PDF

APPSC Group 2 Previous year Question papers are available here. Here we provide the Previous Year’s Exam Papers along with the answers. Here the candidates can get the APPSC Group 2 Syllabus and Exam pattern. Here we uploaded the APPSC Group 2 Prelims Question papers and APPSC Group 2 Mains Question papers in a separate PDF. So all the candidates are requested to download the APPSC Group 2 Question papers from this page free of cost and prepare well for the examination.

APPSC GROUP 2 QUESTION PAPER With ANSWER KEY DOWNLOAD

APPSC Answer Key Download Here

  1. For which area of study in Economics,
    did Oliver Hart win the Nobel Prize in 2016?
    (1) Theory of Foreign Trade
    (2) Analysis of Economic Growth
    (3) Study of Inflation
    (4) Contribution to Contract Theory

 

  1. Nobel Peace Prize, 2016 was awarded to a?
    (1) Non-Governmental Organisation
    (2) Missionary
    (3) Head of a State
    (4) Rebel party leader

 

  1. Nobel Prize, 2016, in Medicine was awarded for work in the area of?
    (1) Malaria therapy
    (2) Infections by parasites
    (3) Infections by viruses
    (4) Cell autophagy mechanism

 

  1. As per the awards given by Flightstats for 2016, the winner of first place as best performing airline for being on time is?
    (1) Singapore Airlines
    (2) Qantas
    (3) KLM
    (4) Delta Airlines

 

  1. Why did Alauddin Khilji introduce a market policy of fixed prices for food grains?
    (1) For a better return to the farmers
    (2) To ensure that consumers can directly purchase from farmers
    (3) To ensure that the market price is equal to the fair price
    (4) To ensure that soldiers can live comfortably with low salary

 

  1. The decline of trade and commerce in North India between the 7th and 10th centuries was partly due to the?
    (1) Collapse of West Roman Empire
    (2) Collapse of China
    (3) Collapse of South East Asia
    (4) Decline in skills of Indian artisans

 

  1. Which of these Sultans set up a Department of Public Works to look after building programs?
    (1) Firoz Tughlaq
    (2) Jalaluddin Tughlaq
    (3) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq
    (4) Ghiyas uddin Tughlaq

 

  1. The silver Rupiya, which remained a standard currency for centuries was introduced by?
    (1) Akbar
    (2) Sher Shah Suri
    (3) Jahangir
    (4) Humayun

 

  1. The “Dahsala” system developed by Raja Todar Mal was for
    (1) Collection of revenue at a standard rate which was valid for 10 years
    (2) Measurement of land once in 10 years for fixing the area of assessment
    (3) Collection of revenue on the basis of the average of produce and prices in the last 10 years
    (4) Sharing of crops between the farmer and the State for 10 years

 

  1. The class of traders who specialized in carrying bulk goods over long distances during the Mughal period was called
    (1) Beo Paris
    (2) Banks
    (3) Sarafs
    (4) Banjar as

 

  1. During the Mughal period, approximately how much percentage of rural agricultural produce was marketed
    (1) 109%
    (2) 15%
    (3) 20%
    (4) 25%

 

  1. who said the following about 18th-century India, “Bear in mind that the commerce of India is the commerce of the world”
    (1) Peter the Great, of Russia
    (2) Vasco da Gama
    (3) Robert Clive
    (4) Dupleix, the French Governor-General
  2. Which of these Nawabs of Bengal abolished all duties on internal trade
    (1) Mir Jafar
    (2) Siraj-ud-Daulah
    (3) Mir Qasim
    (4) Nizam-ud-Daulah

 

  1. The Industrial Revolution in Britain led to
    (1) Increase in export of raw cotton from
    (2) Increase in export of textiles from India
    (3) Liberalization of textile trade with India
    (4) No change in textile trade from India

 

  1. In 1750, approximately how much percentage of the manufacturing goods of the world were manufactured in India
    (1) 24.5%
    (2) 14.5%
    (3) 11.5%
    (4) 9.5%

 

  1. which Five-Year Plan laid emphasis on heavy industry-led development?
    (1) Fifth
    (2) Fourth
    (3) Second
    (4) Sixth

 

  1. Which enactment deals with the withdrawal of currency notes from being legal tender
    (1) Prevention of Money Laundering Act
    (2) Reserve Bank of India Act
    (3) Banking Regulation Act
    (4) Indian Paper Currency Order

 

  1. which name is not associated with Green Revolution in India
    (1) C. Subramaniam.
    (2) Dr. M. S. Swaminathan
    (3) Sardar Swaran Singh
    (4) Norman Borlaug

 

  1. The budget of the Government of India used to be presented as per tradition at 5: 30 p.m. n the Lok Sabha. In which year, was the time of presentation shifted to 11:00 a.m.
    (1) 1999
    (2) 2000
    (3) 2010
    (4) 2001

 

  1. The fiscal Deficit of the Government of India is closest to
    (1) Excess of revenue expenditure over revenue receipts
    (2) Interest-bearing borrowings during a financial year
    (3) Excess of revenue and capital expenditure over tax revenue
    (4) Accumulated public debt at the end of the financial year

 

  1. The share of Central taxes to states recommended by the 14th Finance Commission

(1) 42%
(2) 36%
(3) 32.5%
(4) 29.5%

 

  1. Green Revolution primarily aimed at
    (1) Increasing production through redistribution of land
    (2) Planned export of food grains
    (3) Cash crop cultivation
    (4) Increasing production of food grains through high-yielding varieties

 

  1. In 1991 economic reform, which policy measure was not undertaken
    (1) Devaluation
    (2) Shifting gold from RBI vaults overseas
    (3) Demonetisation
    (4) Partial convertibility of Rupee

 

  1. Which policy measure has not been a part of Liberalisation, Privatisation, and Globalisation
    (1) FDI in defense sector
    (2) Capital account convertibility
    (3) FDI in the retail sector
    (4) Disinvestment

 

  1. Out of the following crops, Green Revolution produced the maximum increase in the production
    (1) Paddy
    (2) Wheat
    (3) Pulses
    (4) Millets

 

  1. What is the Minimum Support Price in Rupees per Quintal of Common Paddy announced by the Government of India for the Kharif 2016-17 season?
    (1) Rs 1,470
    (2) Rs 1,510
    (3) Rs 1,625
    (4) Rs 1,650

 

  1. The target growth rate of the agricultural sector as per National Agricultural Policy, 2000 was in excess of
    (1) 2%
    (2) 2.5%
    (3) 3%
    (4) 4%

 

  1. “Garibi Hatao” was introduced during which Five Year Plan?
    (1) 4th Five-Year Plan
    (2) 5th Five-Year Plan
    (3) 6th Five-Year Plan
    (4) 3rd Five-Year Plan

 

  1. The fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act does not
    (1) Prescribe limits for fiscal and revenue deficits
    (2) Prescribe certain vision statements to be laid along with the budgets
    (3) Provide for penal provisions if deficit targets are not met
    (4) Apply both at the Central and State level

 

  1. Integrated Child Development Scheme (ICDS)
    (1) has shared funding by Central and State governments
    (2) is fully funded by respective State governments
    (3) is fully funded by the Central government
    (4) is a fully externally aided scheme

 

  1. Industrial Policy Resolution, 1977 focussed on
    (1) Heavy industry
    (2) Small-scale and village industry
    (3) Foreign Direct Investment
    (4) Mining

 

  1. The implementation agency for Prime Minister Rozgar Yojana (PMRY) is
    (1) Nationalised Bank
    (2) Small Industry Service Institute
    (3) District Industries Centre
    (4) District Employment Exchange

 

  1. At present, in India, Foreign Direct Investment is completely prohibited in which sector
    (1) Petroleum refining
    (2) Cable networks
    (3) Newspapers
    (4) Chit funds

 

  1. As per the present policy, what is the percentage of Foreign Direct Investment permitted in total equity for Multi-Brand Retail Trading Sector
    (1) 51%
    (2) 49%
    (3) 26%
    (4) 100%

 

  1. Which of the following is not registered as a Geographical Indication in India as per details available till November 2016
    (1) Tirupati Laddu
    (2) Uppada Jamdani Saree
    (3) Guntur Sannam Chilli
    (4) Bandaru Laddu

 

  1. As per the vision of the National Manufacturing Policy, 2011 how many additional jobs have to be created in the manufacturing sector by 2022
    (1) 200 million
    (2) 100 million
    (3) 75 million
    (4) 60 million

 

  1. What is the mandate of the MGNREGA scheme in terms of days of guaranteed wage employment for those who volunteer to work in a financial year
    (1) 100 days for every adult in the village
    (2) 150 days for every adult in the village
    (3) 100 days for every household in the village whose adult members volunteer to work
    (4) 150 days of work for every household in the village whose adult members volunteer to work

 

  1. Under the Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana, what is the annual premium to be paid by the policyholder to get accidental insurance coverage?
    (1) Rs. 12 exclusive of service tax
    (2) Rs. 12 inclusive of service tax
    (3) Rs.  330 exclusive of service tax
    (4) Rs. 330 inclusive of service tax

 

  1. What is the annual rate of interest recommended by the Central Board of Trustees of EPF for the financial year 2016 -17 on EPFO deposits
    (1) 8.8%
    (2) 8.75%
    (3) 8.7%
    (4) 8.65%

 

  1. The Maternity Benefits (Amendment) Bill 2016, proposes to increase the maternity leave available to mothers with less than 2 surviving children from 12 weeks to?
    (1) 18 weeks
    (2) 22 weeks
    (3) 26 weeks
    (4) 30 weeks

 

  1. The upper threshold wage limit per month for an employee to avail of benefits of the ESI scheme is
    (1) Rs. 15,000
    (2) Rs. 21,000
    (3) Rs. 25,000
    (4) Rs. 27,000

 

  1. As per the 28th QES (Quarterly Report on Changes in Employment) Report of the Labour Bureau, the largest contributor to job growth in the year 2015 was
    (1) IT/BPO sector
    (2) Textiles & Apparels sector
    (3) Metals sector
    (4) Automobile sector

 

  1. As per Census 2011, how much percentage rounded off to the nearest integer) of ST households have walls made of burnt bricks or concrete
    (1) 22%
    (2) 28%
    (3) 24%
    (4) 25%

 

  1. with what objective was CAPART established
    (1) Development of supercomputers
    (2) Export promotion
    (3) Rural development
    (4) Pollution control

 

  1. As per the Agricultural Census 2010-11, the average size of operated land holdings in hectares in 2010-11 held by all classes together, Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in that order are
    (1) 1.15; 0.80; 1.52
    (2) 1.52; 1.15; 0.80
    (3) 1.52; 0.80; 1.15
    (4) 1.15; 1.52; 0.80

 

  1. As per the Agricultural Census, 2010-11, small and medium holdings constitute about 85% of the total number of holdings in India but the operated area of these holdings out of the total operated area is only
    (1) 54.58%
    (2) 44.58%
    (3) 34.58%
    (4) 24.58%

 

  1. In its surveys, the indicator used by NSSO to measure economic inequality amongst households is
    (1) Income
    (2) Consumption
    (3) Wealth
    (4) Social status

 

  1. Who was the chief guest for the 2016 Republic Day parade
    (1) Barak Obama
    (2) David Cameron
    (3) François Hollande
    (4) Shinzo Abe

 

  1. The annual growth rate of real GDP of India in 2014-15 is
    (1) 7.3%
    (2) 7.8%
    (3) 7%
    (4) 7.5%

 

  1. The place Aleppo which was recently in the news is located in
    (1) Israel
    (2) Syria
    (3) Ukraine
    (4) Palestine

 

  1. The country which demonetized its currency after India but immediately backtracked was
    (1) Colombia
    (2) Venezuela.
    (3) Brazil
    (4) Chile

 

  1. The pair of super view -1 remote sensing satellites was launched by
    (1) USA.
    (2) Russia
    (3) France
    (4) China

 

  1. The theme of World Human Rights Day observed in December 2016 was
    (1) My Voice Counts
    (2) our Rights, our Freedoms, Always
    (3) Stand up for someone’s rights today
    (4) # Rights 365

 

  1. Hornbill Festival is celebrated by showcasing the cultural heritage of
    (1) Nagaland
    (2) Mizoram
    (3) Manipur
    (A) Meghalaya

 

  1. The reason for celebrating National  Technology Day on 11th May is because on this day

(1) PARAM supercomputer was inaugurated
(2) ISRO launched its first PSLV rocket
(3) The first nuclear reactor went critical
(4) Nuclear tests were successfully conducted at Pokhran

 

  1. “Santhara” is a ritual of fasting to death amongst
    (1) Buddhists
    (2) Jains
    (3) Sufis
    (4) Parsis

 

  1. Magnus Carlsen, the world Chess Champion is from
    (1) Sweden
    (2) Canada.
    (3) Norway
    (4) Great Britain

 

  1. FICN is the common acronym of
    (1) Foreign Investor Confidence Note
    (2) Federal Investigation of Crimes Noticed
    (3) Fake Indian Currency Note
    (4) Federation of Inter-Continental Nations

 

  1. The share of Andhra Pradesh in Central taxes as recommended by the 14th Finance Commission is
    (1) 4.305%
    (2) 3.083%
    (3) 2.503%
    (4) 5.521%

 

  1. The United Nations Convention on Climate Change held at Paris in December 2015 agreed on
    (1) Centrally determined contributions
    (2) Capacity-based determination
    of contributions
    (3) UNO-determined contributions
    (4) Nationally determined contributions

 

  1. The proposed gravitational-wave observation project in India would be run by a consortium of research institutions known under the English acronym
    (1) Indigo
    (2) ILIGO
    (3) IndLIGO
    (4) InIGO

 

  1. National Research Laboratory is located is near
    (1) Thiruvananthapuram
    (2) Chandigarh
    (3) Tirupati
    (4) Bengaluru

 

  1. The theme of the Nobel Prize-winning book, “Secondhand Time” is
    (1) concept of time in Science
    (2) Society and Politics of the Soviet Union
    (3) Management of time
    (4) History of different times

 

  1. The 104th Indian Science Congress was held at
    (1) Chennai
    (2) Tirupati
    (3) Mysore
    (4) Kolkata

 

  1. Which of the following is not counted in Human Development Index (HDI)
    (1) Per capita income
    (2) Number of years of schooling
    (3) Ownership of basic assets
    (4) Life expectancy at birth

 

  1. T.M. Krishna was awarded Magsaysay Award, 2016 for
    (1) Excellence in music
    (2) Public service
    (3) working for world peace
    (4) Ensuring social inclusiveness in culture

 

  1. Out of the persons mentioned below, who is one of the founders of “Safari Andolan”
    (1) Kailash Satyarthi
    (2) Bezwada Wilson
    (3) Bindeshwar Pathak
    (4) Kamla ben Gurjar

 

  1. Dilma Rousseff was in the news because
    (1) She won the second term as the President of Brazil
    (2) She won an international award for peace
    (3) She was impeached from office by the Senate
    (4) She was ousted from power in a coup

 

  1. After the Brexit referendum results, the following did not happen in the UK
    (1) There was a change of Prime Minister
    (2) The opposition party came to power
    (3) The new Prime Minister is a lady
    (4) The Home Secretary became the new Conservative leader

 

  1. The referendum in Greece in June 2015 was to decide on whether
    (1) Currency should be devalued
    (2) To curtail the powers of the Parliament or not
    (3) To leave the EU or not
    (4) To accept bail-out conditions by the EU and IMF or not

 

  1. After leaving India, Vijay Mallya is hiding in a / an
    (1) English village
    (2) French villa
    (3) Cruise ship
    (4) US resort

 

  1. The prize considered equivalent to Nobel Prize for Mathematics is
    (1) Fields Medal
    (2) Newton Medal
    (3) Ramanujan Medal
    (4) Pythagoras Medal

 

  1. Obama Care is the
    (1) Law for affordable healthcare
    (2) Law for education for everyone
    (3) Law for protection against racial violence
    (4) Law for the care of the shelterless

 

  1. Who is the present Secretary General of the UNO
    (1) Ban Ki-Moon
    (2) Kofi Annan
    (3) Antonio Guterres
    (4) Irina Bokova

 

  1. who is the Managing Director of the International Monetary Fund
    (1) Christine Lagarde
    (2) Joseph Stiglitz
    (3) Kristalina Georgieva
    (4) Jim Yong Kim

 

  1. The present Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is
    (1) P.J Kurien
    (2) Arun Jaitley
    (3) Hamid Ansari
    (4) Selja Kumari

 

  1. The book titled “Half Lion” is about
    (1) Sitaram Kesri
    (2) Rajiv Gandhi
    (3) P V. Narasimha Rao
    (4) Manmohan Singh

 

  1. India’s first digital village is
    (1) Ibrahimpur
    (2) Akodara
    (3) Dhasai
    (4) Khan Dalavadi

 

  1. The mobile app BHIM Bharat Interface for Money is based on
    (1) Central Payment Interface
    (2) Local Payment Interface
    (3) Unified Payment Interface
    (4) World Payment Interface

 

  1. The foundation stone for the Indian Institute of Skills was laid by the Prime Minister in
    (1) Allahabad
    (2) Lucknow
    (3) Patna
    (4) Kanpur

 

  1. Fifth India-Arab Partnership Conference was held at
    (1) Dubai
    (2) Muscat
    (3) Qatar
    (4) Riyadh

 

  1. The “UJALA” scheme launched by the Centre aims
    (1) Providing electricity connection to all houses.
    (2) Promoting efficient lighting by providing LED bulbs
    (3) Promoting solar energy devices
    (4) Providing open access for the sale of power

 

  1. Who is the Scientific Adviser to the Defence Minister?
    (1) S. Christopher
    (2) R. Chidambaram
    (3) V. K. Saraswat
    (4) G. Satheesh Reddy

 

  1. The bronze medal of Yogeshwar Dutt in wrestling in 2012, London Olympics was upgraded to silver because the following wrestler failed the dope test
    (1) Togrul Asgarov
    (2) Sharif Sharifov
    (3) Jake Varner
    (4) Besik Kuduk hov

 

  1. Who is the new Chief of Air Force of India 
    (1) Bipin Rawat
    (2) B. S. Dhanoa
    (3) Sunil Lamba
    (4) Arup Raha

 

  1. The 77th session of the Indian History Congress was held at
    (1) Chennai
    (2) Bengaluru
    (3) Thiruvananthapuram
    (4) New Delhi

 

  1. For which project, did Andhra Pradesh win the Gold award in the category of “Out standing Performance in Citizen-Centric Service Delivery” in the 20th National Conference on e-Governance held in January, 2017
    (1) Aadhar-enabled PDS
    (2) Loan Module
    (3) State Pension Portal
    (4) CORE

 

  1. Which of the following towns in Andhra Pradesh is part of HRIDAY scheme of the Ministry of Urban Development of the Government of India
    (1) Tirupati
    (2) Srisailam
    (3) Vijayawada
    (4) Amaravati

 

  1. The Lodha Committee report on working of BCCI
    (1) Proposes ban on betting
    (2) Does not deal with betting
    (3) Proposes legalization of betting
    (4) Proposes jail sentence for betting

 

  1. The Badminton world Federation Most Improved Player of the Year Award for 2016 was given to
    (1) P.V. Sindhu
    (2) Carolina Marina
    (3) Sun Yu
    (4) Ayaka Takahashi
  2. Who is the new Lieutenant Governor of Delhi
    (1) Anil Goel
    (2) Anil Baijal
    (3) Vijay Goel
    (4) Pradip Baijal

 

  1. Which artist sketched the National Emblem in the original copy of the Constitution
    (1) Nandlal Bose
    (2) Dinanath Bhargava
    (3) Jatin Das
    (4) Kanu Desai
  2. Who won the Sahitya Akademi Award for poetry in Telugu for 2016
    (1) Papineni Sivasankar
    (2) Katyayani Vidmahe
    (3) R. Chandrasekhara Reddy
    (4) Volga
  3. What is Chiraharitae
    (1) Species of deer discovered in Madhya Pradesh
    (2) Long leaf plant discovered in Karnataka
    (3) Termite species discovered in Kerala
    (4) Butterfly species discovered in Tamil

  4. Which country won the Kabaddi World cup 2016

    (1) India
    (2) Thailand
    (3) Iran
    (4) South Korea

 

  1. The winner of the National Award for 2016 under Pandit Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Anty odaya Krishi Puraskar is
    (1) Roop Singh
    (2) Rajender Singh
    (3) Krishna Yadav
    (4) Aruna Rai
  2. The farming model proposed by Subhash Palekar is
    (1) Low budget organic farming
    (2) Zero budget natural farming
    (3) Multi-level organic farming
    (4) Nature friendly organic farming

  3. As stated in the Preamble to the Constitution of India, India is a

    (1) Sovereign Secular Socialist Democratic Republic
    (2) Socialist Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic
    (3) Secular sovereign Democratic Socialist Republic
    (4) Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic

  4. How many Fundamental Duties are stated in Article 51A of the Constitution

    (1) 9
    (2) 10
    (3) 11
    (4) 12
  5. In India, any violation to the right to property cannot be challenged by filing a
    (1) writ under Article 226 of the Constitution
    (2) Civil suit before a Court
    (3) writ under Article 32 of the Constitution
    (4) Case before Lok Adalat
  6. According to Article 248 of the Indian Constitution, Residuary Power is vested with the
    (1) Parliament
    (2) States
    (3) Union and States jointly
    (4) President
  7. How many times can a person be elected as the President of India
    (1) Once
    (2) No restriction
    (3) Twice
    (4) Two terms consecutively
  8. In which case did the Supreme Court deliver the landmark judgement dealing with imposition of President’s Rule in the States
    (1) Golaknath
    (2) Maneka Gandhi
    (3) Minerva Mills
    (4) S R. Bommai
  9. For altering the boundary of a state or for creation of a new State,
    (1) Concurrence of the affected State Assembly is required
    (2) views of the affected State Assembly are to be sought by the President
    (3) Two-thirds majority of the affected State Assembly is required
    (4) Affected State has to make a recommendation to the Lok Sabha
  10. Which one of the following writs can be filed against a private person also
    (1) Quo warranto
    (2) Certiorari
    (3) Habeas Corpus
    (4) Mandamus
  11. The day which is celebrated as the Constitution day in India is
    (1) January 26
    (2) January 30
    (3) August 15
    (4) November 26
  12. Which one of the following does not indicate a prominent federal feature of the Indian State
    (1) Allocation of financial resources
    (2) Independent judiciary
    (3) Supremacy of the Constitution
    (4) Distribution of powers
  13. In the words of K. C. Wheare, a constitutional expert, India is
    (1) a cooperative federation
    (2) a quasi-federation
    (3) a strong union
    (4) not a federation
  14. In which year, did the right to education come into force as a fundamental right?
    (1) 2001
    (2) 2002
    (3) 2009
    (4) 2010
  15. The reason for the Public Accounts Committee of Parliament being headed by a
    member of the opposition party in the Lok Sabha is
    (1) Rules framed by the Government
    (2) Convention
    (3) Rules of Procedure of Parliament
    (4) Presidential order
  16. How many members are from the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha respectively in the Parliamentary Committee on Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
    (1) 15, 15
    (2) 15, 10
    (3) 20, 10
    (4) 10, 10
  17. The Model Code of Conduct for elections is issued by the Election Commission as per
    (1) Rules in the Constitution
    (2) Rules in the Indian Penal Code
    (3) Issued for voluntary compliance
    (4) Rules laid down in the Peoples Representation Act
  18. President’s Rule is declared under which Article of the Constitution?
    (1) Article 356
    (2) Article 358
    (3) Article 360
    (4) Article 352
  19. Article 32 of the Constitution
    (1) can be amended with simple majority
    (2) Cannot be amended
    (3) Can be amended with two-thirds majority
    (4) can be amended with ratification by the States

  20. Which of these Fundamental Rights is available only to a citizen of India

    (1) Rights under Article 19
    (2) Rights under Article 25
    (3) Rights under Article 21
    (4) Rights under Article 14
  21. It is believed that Fundamental Duties have been introduced in the Constitution upon recommendation by this Committee
    (1) Swaran Singh Committee
    (2) Narasimha Rao Committee
    (3) Chavan Committee
    (4) Buta Singh Committee
  22. Decisions of Inter State Council are taken by
    (1) Consensus
    (2) Simple majority from the members present
    (3) Two-thirds majority from the members present
    (4) Three-fourths majority from the members present
  23. Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution are adopted on the lines of the Constitution of
    (1) Germany
    (2) USSR
    (3) Ireland
    (4) Canada
  24. In the case of Supreme Court Advocates on Record Association, which of the following judges upheld the Constitutional Amendment for creation of National Judicial AppointmentsCouncil
    (1) Justice J.S. Khehar
    (2) Justice M. B. Lokur
    (3) Justice J. Chelameswar
    (4) Justice Kurian Joseph
  25. As recommended by Justice M.M. Punchhi Commission on Centre-State relations, the Governor of a State shall have
    (1) a tenure fixed for 3 years
    (2) no fixed tenure
    (3) a tenure determined by the State Assembly
    (4) a tenure fixed for 5 years

 

  1. The following is not one of the Directive Principles in the Constitution
    (1) Increasing international trade
    (2) Prohibition of cow slaughter
    (3) Equal pay for equal work of men and women
    (4) Separation of Judiciary from Executive

  2. Which Article of the Directive Principles of the Constitution mentions about empowering Village Panchayats

    (1) Article 38
    (2) Article 39
    (3) Article 40
    (4) Article 41
  3. Who circulated a questionnaire on Uniform Civil Code in October, 2016 to solicit opinions from the public at large
    (1) Ministry of Law and Justice
    (2) National Commission for Minorities
    (3) National Human Rights Commission
    (4) National Law Commission
  4. As per the Constitution, a Union Minister shall hold office during pleasure of the
    (1) Prime Minister
    (2) President of Ruling party
    (3) President
    (4) Leader of the House
  5. As per the Constitution, the Council of Union Ministers is collectively responsible to
    (1) Both the Houses of Parliament
    (2) The President
    (3) The Ruling Party
    (4) The Lok Sabha
  6. In which category was Sachin Tendulkar nominated as the member of the Rajya Sabha
    (1) Literature
    (2) Arts
    (3) Science
    (4) Social Service
  7. whose decision is final in deciding whether a bill is a money bill or not?
    (1) The President
    (2) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
    (3) The Finance Minister
    (4) The Supreme Court
  8. Collegium system of appointment of Supreme Court Judges derives sanction from
    (1) The Constitution
    (2) Consent of Government
    (3) Decisions of Supreme Court
    (4) President of India
  9. If a bill is introduced in the the Council of the State and sent to  Legislative Assembly for approval but if the Legislative Assembly rejects the bill, what is the next course of action?
    (1) Joint sitting of both the Houses
    (2) Council may send the bill back to the Assembly for reconsideration
    (3) Bill may be sent to the Governor for examination
    (4) The fate of the bill ends
  10. The total number of ministers including the Chief Minister in a State shall not be less than
    (1) 12
    (2) 10
    (3) 15
    (4) 7
  11. The remuneration of an Advocate General would be
    (1) Equal to that of a High Court Judge
    (2) As determined by the Governor
    (3) Equal to that of the Chief Secretary of the State
    (4) Equal to that of the Cabinet Minister of the State

  12. As per Article 243 of the Constitution, the following would be the members of “Gram Sabha “

    (1) All adults with age of 18 years and above in the Panchayat area
    (2) All voters as per electoral rolls relating to the Panchayat area
    (3) All citizens residing in the Panchayat
    (4) All persons allowed by the Gram Panchayat

  13. As per the recommendations of the 14th Finance Commission, the proportion of basic grant a performance grant out of the total grant to a duly constituted Panchayat would be in the ratio of

    (1) 70 : 30
    (2) 80 : 20
    (3) 90 : 10
    (4) 75 : 25
  14. The percentage of distribution of revenue from taxes between the Centre and the States is recommended by the
    (1) Finance Commission
    (2) NITI Aayog
    (3) Inter State Council
    (4) National Development Council
  15. The maximum limit placed by the Constitution on levy per annum of Profession Tax is
    (1) Rs.  5,000
    (2) Rs. 2,500
    (3) Rs.  1,250
    (4) Rs.  2,000
  16. Match the following Articles with the corresponding States
    A. Article 371A.            P. Assam
  17. Article 371B             Q. Nagaland.
  18. Article 37iC.              R. Manipur
  19. Article 371F.             S. Mizoram.
  20. Article 371G.             T. Sikkim

(1) AP, BQ, CR, DS, ET
(2) AP, BT, CQ, DS, ER
(3) AQ, BP, CR, DT, ES
(4) AR, BQ, CP, DT, ES

  1. As per the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution, how many members shall be there in Tribes Advisory Council be constituted by a State
    (1) Up to 10
    (2) Upto 20
    (3) Up to 25
    (4) Upto 50
  2. The regulations with regard for peace and good government in a Scheduled Area would be issued by
    (1) The President
    (2) The Parliament
    (3) The State Assembly
    (4) The Governor
  3. Who can alter the boundary of a Scheduled Area
    (1) The President
    (2) The Parliament
    (3) The Governor
    (4) The State Assembly
  4. An autonomous region is
    (1) A federation of autonomous districts
    (2) An autonomous unit within an autonomous district
    (3) A block of 3 autonomous districts
    (4) An autonomous district
  5. Even during Emergency, the following rights cannotbe suspended
    (1) Right under Article 21
    (2) Right under Article 19
    (3) Right under Article 14
    (4) Right under Article 22
  6. What is the amount of grant-in-aid recommended by the 14th Finance Commission to the Panchayats during 2015 -2020
    (1) Rs. 250,292.20 Cr
    (2) Rs. 300,292.20 Cr
    (3) Rs. 200,292.20 Cr
    (4) Rs. 275,292.20 Cr
  7. Cultivation of opium is an item in the
    (1) Union List
    (2) State List
    (3) Concurrent List
    (4) Residuary item
  8. The power of Parliament to amend the Constitution is limited by the
    (1) Supreme Court
    (2) Civil Society
    (3) States
    (4) Constitution
  9. Which Article of the Constitution directs to provide instruction in mother tongue at the primary education stage to the children of linguistic minority groups?
    (1) Article 350A
    (2) Article 300A
    (3) Article 351A
    (4) Article 301A
  10. The power of Judicial Review is exercised by the Supreme Court through which Article of the Constitution
    (1) Article 131
    (2) Article 132
    (3) Article 32
    (4) Article 134
  11. As per Article 164 of the constitution, a Minister for Tribal Welfare is compulsory for which State
    (1) Madhya Pradesh
    (2) Maharashtra
    (3) Rajasthan
    (4) Himachal Pradesh
  12. The aim of Pradhan Mantri Uijwala Yojana is
    (1) Improve coverage of rural electrification
    (2) Impart skills to girl child
    (3) Improve female literacy
    (4) Provide LPG connections to BPL households

  13. Who chaired the 27th Southern Zonal Council Meeting held at Thiruvananthapuram on 28th December, 2016

    (1) Pinarayi Vijayan
    (2) Rajnath Singh
    (3) Arun Jaitley
    (4) Kiran Bedi
  14. Arrange the countries in descending order according to total medals won in the latest Olympics?
    (1) USA, Great Britain, China, Russia
    (2) USA, China, Great Britain, Russia
    (3) USA, Russia, Great Britain, China,
    (4) Russia, Great Britain, USA, China

 

Comments are closed.